“For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that He might be the firstborn among the brethren.” — Romans 8:29
Our text begins by the expression, “Whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate,” and many senses have been given to this word “foreknow” though in this case one commends itself beyond every other. Some have thought that it simply, means that God predestinated men whose future history ho foreknow.
The text before us cannot be so understood, because the Lord foreknows the history of every man, and angel, and devil. So far as mere prescience goes, every man is foreknown, and yet no one will assert that all men are predestinated to be conformed to the image of the Lord Jesus. But, it is further asserted that the Lord foreknow who would exercise repentance, who would believe in Jesus, and who would persevere in a consistent life to the end. This is readily granted, but a reader must wear very powerful magnifying spectacles before he will be able to discover that sense in the text.
Upon looking carefully at my Bible again I do not perceive such a statement. Where are those words which you have added, “Whom he did foreknow to repent, to believe, and to persevere in grace?” I do not find them either in the English version or in the Greek original.
If I could so read them the passage would certainly be very easy, and would very greatly alter my doctrinal views; but, as I do not find those words there, begging your pardon, I do not believe in them. However wise and advisable a human interpolation may be, it has no authority with us; we bow to holy Scripture, but not to glosses which theologians may choose to put upon it.
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RC Sproul’s Golden Chain illustration is powerful:
If the foreknowing is only ‘some’ [some=those who repent], then to be fair in the text, you would rightly insert the correct term as such-
29 For [some] whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. 30 And [some] whom he predestined he also called, and [some] whom he called he also justified, and [some] whom he justified he also glorified.
Then the problems are self-evident.
Are the greek words similar to that and this verse:
“‘I never knew you; depart from me, you workers of lawlessness.’” (Matthew 7:21-23)
??
What’s interesting is those who don’t enter the Kingdom of Heaven, Christ NEVER KNEW…. HMMMMMM….
And their actions showed that they “chose to do the things of Christ”… hmmmm… there has to be more to it then God just knowing about what a person would choose to do.
If God predestines according to something He knows that they WILL DO, then isn’t that a form of works salvation? The only difference is that with this, the salvation would come before the works, not after.
So predestination must be according to God’s Sovereign Will (Romans 2:11).
And colinm, what problems? What the Bible is here talking about is that SOME of all mankind are predestined to salvation. To insert “some” as you have done is an invalid attempt to discredit what R.C. Sproul said.
“Some” means that only “some” are predestined. All you’ve done is twist something R.C. Sproul said to find problems with it. That’s dishonest. He never meant for “some” to be used the way you suggest.
Earendil, I don’t think Colin was trying discredit Sproul. In fact, just the opposite. I think you have misread Colin’s comment. Colin was quoting Sproul who was pointing out that “some” could not be used in such a way as described.